Consider the following two statements:
A) The inguinal region must be examined in every patient presenting with a scrotal swelling.
B) The lymphatic drainage of the testis is to the superficial inguinal lymph
nodes.
Which of the following is correct?
- A.Both are correct
- B.A is correct and B is incorrect
- C.A is incorrect and B is correct
- D.Both are incorrect
Show answer and explanation
Answer: B. A is correct and B is incorrect
The correct answer is A is correct and B is incorrect.
Statement A is true: for any scrotal swelling you must examine the inguinal region and confirm whether you can get above the swelling. If you cannot, the lump is likely an inguinoscrotal hernia descending through the external ring rather than a primary scrotal lesion. Statement B is false: the testis develops as a retroperitoneal organ and then descends, so its lymphatics follow the testicular vessels up to the para-aortic (lumbar) lymph nodes at the level of L2. It is the skin of the scrotum, not the testis, that drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.
This distinction is clinically vital: a testicular tumour spreads first to para-aortic nodes, so a normal groin examination does not exclude nodal metastasis, whereas a carcinoma of the scrotal skin does spread to the inguinal nodes.
Incorrect Options:
- Both are correct: wrong, because the testis drains to para-aortic, not superficial inguinal, nodes.
- A is incorrect and B is correct: reverses the truth - A is true and B is false.
- Both are incorrect: wrong, because examining the inguinal region for a scrotal swelling is mandatory.
High-Yield Facts:
- The testis drains to para-aortic (lumbar) nodes at L2.
- The scrotal skin drains to superficial inguinal nodes.
- For any scrotal swelling, check whether you can get above it.
- A testicular tumour spreads first to para-aortic nodes, not the groin.
Figure: The testis drains to the para-aortic (lumbar) lymph glands shown along the aorta, reflecting its retroperitoneal origin - not to the inguinal nodes.